You can't apply Pareto's Rule universally to all men and women, when it comes to sex and romance, without taking other things into account. You can't compare Sean Connery to, say, Richard Simmons, without taking certain variables into account.
I also found the truly promiscuous girls, who were a very small minority, saw the promiscuous guys. I knew most of these girls in high school because they were included in the party girls.
When I owed a taxi I finally encountered groupies who went after athletes and rock stars. I found the vast majority of them were unattractive and were mental cases. It wasn't a case of going after "Alphas" but trying to attach themselves to someone rich and famous so they could convince themselves they had some worth.
Because of my experience in life, I have never taken seriously Roissy, Krauser, Roosh, Vox Day, "The Rational Male," etc. I once told Roissy, "I have more experience than you" and he thew a fit...as I predicted he would.
This article is again from Susan Walsh at Hooking Up Smart. There are many graphs so I'm going to post the first few paragraphs and then post a link.
Do 20% of the men get 80% of the women? I’ve come across this claim repeatedly, though the application of the 80/20 rule varies. Sometimes it’s stated that 20% of the men get 80% of the sex, which is actually a very different claim.
I felt the need to understand exactly what the data says, if anything, in support of the Pareto Principle as it applies to the distributution of sex. Are we talking about 80% of all women? Sexually active women? Women in their 20s, when they are at their peak of fertility and beauty? Or, as in Hollenhund’s version, is it just a question of the frequency of sex, even with one partner? In that case, how to incorporate the male preference for sexual variety?
Read the rest HERE.